Please select the best response for each question.

Questions 1 through 5 - General Safety

1: When lifting heavy objects, you should:

Lift with your back, keeping the load away from your body
Lift with your legs, keeping the load close to your body and your back straight
Lift with your legs, keeping your back flexed
Lift with your legs, keeping your feet touching

2: If a foreign particle gets into your eyes, you should:

Flush your eyes with a natural salt solution or equivalent and wash them with Lidocaine
Rub your eyes vigorously to dislodge the particle
Flush your eyes with fresh water and wash them with a natural salt solution or equivalent
Blink repeatedly to dislodge the particle

3: When using stairs, you should:

Always walk backwards if carrying a load you can't see over
Avoid using the handrails due to germs, take one step at a time, and remain alert
Always use the handrails, take one step at a time, and remain alert
Always use the handrails, take the steps one or two at a time, and remain alert

4: The number one cause of office accidents is:

Jammed staplers
Paper cuts
Falls
Headaches due to eye strain

5: A hazard that could contribute to an accident should be:

Reported to administration
Reported to the supervisor
Ignored since it's not what you were hired for
Called in to the operator

Questions 6 through 10 - Chemical Safety

6: Chemicals can cause:

Cancer
Headaches and skin irritation
Reproductive damage
All of the above

7: MSDS stands for:

Material Selection Data Sheet
Material Safety Data Sorting
Material Safety Development Sheet
Material Safety Data Sheet

8: Labels on chemical containers are:

Only required for dangerous chemicals
Required to list a phone number for the State Department of Health
Required to be no smaller than 40% of the container size
Required to list the potential health hazards the chemical poses

9: You would look at a chemical's MSDS to determine:

The manufacture date of the chemical you're using
It's hazards (whether it's hazardous to skin, to ingest, or to inhale) and what to do if you're exposed to it
The recommended escape route out of the facility if the chemical is spilled
The chemical's Threshold Exposure Limits (TEL) and Permissible Limit Values (PLV)

10: Hazardous chemicals are used:

In the Oncology unit
In the Sterilization department
Only by the Housekeeping department
Throughout healthcare facilities

Questions 11 through 15 - Electrical Safety

11: The following statements regarding electricity are true except:

Improperly channeled electricity is something that cannot be seen
Electrical cords should not be bent sharply around an obstruction or be in a travel path
Ungrounded equipment does not have the potential to present a danger to patients & healthcare workers
Always grasp the end plug to disconnect the device (never jerk the cord)

12: Patients are allowed to bring electrical items to the healthcare facility and use them:

If the items they bring have been inspected by the healthcare facility's Engineering department
If the items they bring do not emit any visible sparks
If the items they bring have a grounding prong
If the items they bring have been manufactured no later than 1991

13: Life-support equipment is always required to be plugged into the:

Red receptacles
Green receptacles
Orange receptacles
Violet receptacles

14: 3-prong electrical plug may only be used if:

The manufacturer of the plug is Puritan-Bennett
None of the prongs are defective
You’re plugging it into a red receptacle
A 2-prong "cheater" is first inserted into the receptacle

15: Electrical equipment may not be used if:

It has no inspection sticker or tag from the healthcare facility's engineering department
It's electrical cord has a defective plug (a prong is broken or missing)
It has a frayed electrical cord
All of the above

Questions 16 through 20 - Fire Safety

16: Class C fires are:

Put out by simply using water
Chemical fires
Put out by using a type AB fire extinguisher
Energized electrical equipment fires

17: "RACE" stands for:

Rescue, Alert, Contain, and Extinguish
Rescue, Alert, Contain, and Eliminate
Respond, Alert, Contain, and Extinguish
Respond, Alert, Contain, and Evade

18: Basic safety principles for portable fire extinguishers include:

Remembering to shake the fire extinguisher before activating it
Remembering that fires give off toxic gases which are present in the smoke
Always fighting the portion of the fire that's furthest from you first
Attacking outdoor fires with the wind to your face

19: It is always important to:

Evacuate the building as quickly as possible, even if it means leaving some people behind
Rescue any person in immediate danger from smoke and/or fire
Wedge the fire doors open so others can escape the fire
Throw away all fire extinguishers after they've been used

20: The classes of fires you'll most likely see are:

Class A (ordinary combustibles); Class B (flammable liquids); Class C (electrical equipment)
Class A (ordinary combustibles); Class B (electrical equipment); Class D (flammable liquids)
Class A (ordinary combustibles); Class B (flammable liquids); Class C (chemical)
Class A (all types); Class B (boards); Class C (combustibles)

Questions 21 through 25 - Injury and Illness Prevention

21: The first line of defense to protect yourself against infection is:

Intact skin and mucous membranes
The minimization of splashing, spraying, splattering, and generation of droplets
Gloves and mask
Adequate handwashing

22: Patient care items contaminated with body substances must be:

Placed in special containers with clear white bags
Sent to the laboratory for observation
Removed from the facility and recycled in accordance with federal guidelines
Placed in special containers with red bags

23: Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) consists of:

Gloves, mask, gown or nylon bib, goggles
Gloves, mask, gown or plastic apron, goggles
Gloves, mask, gown or plastic apron, ear protection
Gloves, mask, goggles

24: In areas where there is a reasonable likelihood of exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM):

It is permissible to apply lip balm that is wax-based
It is permissible to drink from closed containers only
It is permissible to eat, drink, apply cosmetics or lip balm, smoke, or handle contact lenses
It is important to not eat, drink, apply cosmetics or lip balm, smoke, or handle contact lenses

25: Handwashing is:

The least high-tech and therefore the least effective method of preventing the transfer of germs
Performed before going to the toilet
Only required before preparing food or medications
Performed upon entering and leaving each patient room

Questions 26 through 30 - Bloodborne Pathogens

26: Gloves must be worn:

When it is reasonably anticipated that hand contact will be made with blood, non-intact skin, mucous membranes, or OPIM
When performing vascular access procedures or handling or touching contaminated items or surfaces
When it is reasonably anticipated that hand contact will be made with the patient's bed linens
When it is reasonably anticipated that foot protection must be worn
Both A and B
Both C and D

27: Disposable gloves are:

OK to wear even if they become torn or punctured
To be replaced when they are torn, punctured, or lose their ability to function as a barrier
To be washed or decontaminated for reuse
Both A and C

28: The following is true of housekeeping procedures:

Only blood from HIV+ individuals will be considered infectious
Sharps that are contaminated with blood or OPIM must not be stored or discarded in a way that requires employees to reach by hand into the containers where they have been placed
Broken glassware may be picked up by hand, regardless of the possibility of contamination
All bins, pails, cans, and similar receptacles are to be decontaminated only when contaminated with blood products

29: Containers for contaminated sharps must be:

Properly labeled, puncture resistant, closeable, and leakproof on the sides and bottom
Replaced routinely
Maintained upright throughout use and kept from overfilling by compacting the contents by hand
Located as far from patient areas as possible to prevent unauthorized access
Both A and B
Both A and C

30: All blood will be considered infectious:

Regardless of the perceived status of the source individual
Unless the patient is an infant
Unless the patient is of school age or younger
Only after testing by a laboratory provides confirmation of its infectious status

Questions 31 through 35 - Restraints

31: Alternatives to restraints:

Use reality-orienting and other psychosocial interventions
Companionship and supervision
Ingenious improvisation
All of the above

32: Research has shown that restraints are typically used for the following reasons.

When knowledge of an alternative to restraint use is lacking
To decrease patient safety
Control
Both A and C

33: Which is not one of the risks related to restraint use?

Increased number of falls
Decreased confusion levels
Pneumonia and pressure sores
Strangulation and/or asphyxiation

34: Restraints should be used only when other interventions fail.

True
False

35: Restraints should be discontinued as soon as the threat to the patient's and/or other's safety is resolved.

True
False

Questions 36 through 40 - Pharmacology

36: The most common use of bronchodilators is to:

Aid in chest physiotherapy
Aid in pulmonary function testing
Improve or reduce the work of breathing
Provide an emergency response for asthmatics

37: The 3 subgroups of adrenergic bronchodilators are:

Short-acting adrenergic bronchodilators, intermediate-acting noncatecholamines, and long-acting catecholamines.
Short-acting catecholamines, intermediate-acting noncatecholamines, and long-acting adrenergic bronchodilators.
Short-acting noncatecholamines, intermediate-acting catecholamines, and long-acting adrenergic bronchodilators.
Short-acting adrenergic bronchodilators, intermediate-acting catecholamines, and long-acting noncatecholamines.

38: Inhaled steroids are used for maintenance therapy in asthmatics.

True
False

39: Metered dose inhalers (MDIs) are:

Highly technique-dependent
Both A and C
Dependent on high levels of inspiratory flow
As effective than small-volume nebulizers when properly used

40: Advantages of aerosol medications include:

Rapid onset
No drug preparation is required
Small-volume nebulizers can be given to anyone
Both A and C

Questions 41 through 45 - Privacy Regulations / Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

41: Confidential information must not be shared with another unless the recipient has:

Permission from a physician
The need to know
Permission from Human Resources
All of the above

42: Individually identifiable health information may NOT be:

Faxed
Mailed
E-mailed
Sold
Both C and D

43: You may share your password with another employee to access the hospital information system if the department supervisor has approved it.

True
False

44: You may copy or remove any PHI or confidential information without the approval of the health care facility.

True
False

45: Which of the following can you disclose after your relationship with Respiratory Associates of Texas ends?

The company's marketing strategy
Your access code or password of a facility's information system
A patient's diagnosis
Your salary

Questions 46 through 50 - Airway Management

46: What to look for in a compromised airway.

Color
Cyanosis
Snoring sounds
Retractions
Stridor
Chest Movement
A through F

47: Why should you use cricoid pressure when manually ventilating a patient?

To decrease the risk of stroke
It helps prevent ventilation of the stomach by compressing the esophagus
You shouldn't use cricoid pressure because it impedes ventilation
It helps prepare the patient in case a cricothyroidectomy becomes necessary

48: If you're unable to determine the cause of a ventilator alarm, you should:

Call your supervisor for assistance
Call 911
Check for a kinked patient breathing circuit
Disconnect the patient from the ventilator, manually ventilate, and call for help
Notify the hospital Bio-Med Department that the equipment is malfunctioning.

49: Responding to a high-pressure ventilator alarm you note that the patient is cyanotic and restless, with decreased SpO2 and absent breath sounds. What should you do?

Ask the nurse to sedate the patient
Try to suction the patient
Try to reposition the endotracheal tube
Pull out the endotracheal tube and ventilate the patient with 100% FiO2 via Ambu-bag

50: It's important to preoxygenate a patient's lungs for at least 30 seconds prior to suctioning. What is the recommended duration of both suctioning and post-suctioning hyperoxygenation?

Suction for 30 seconds and hyperoxygenate for 30 seconds
Suction for 10-15 seconds and hyperoxygenate for 1-2 minutes
Suction for 30-45 seconds and hyperoxygenate for 1-2 minutes
Suction for 1 minute and hyperoxygenate for 1-2 minutes

Questions 51 through 57 - Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Sampling

51: A positive Modified Allen's Test is an indication that adequate circulation to the hand exists via the ulnar artery.

True
False

52: Documentation in the patient record/report should NOT include which of the following?

Puncture site
Patient race and gender
Patient response (e.g. did/did not complain of pain)
Pressure held and duration

53: The pH of the ABG sample is the single best index of overall acid-base status.

True
False

54: Which of the following ranges of pH is considered normal?

7.20 - 7.40
7.25 - 7.35
7.35 - 7.45
7.50 - 7.60

55: Which of the following ranges of PaCO2 is considered normal?

20 - 22
35 - 45
60 - 80
80 - 100

56: Which of the following ranges of PaO2 is considered normal?

18 - 24
55 - 75
60 - 79
80 - 100

57: Which of the following ranges of HCO3 is considered normal?

12 - 18
16 - 24
22 - 26
25 - 30

Questions 58 through 65 - Age-Specific Competencies

58: Competency assessment includes demonstration of:

Knowledge of the principles of growth and development
The ability to assess the patient's status
Interpretation of the individual patients' requirements
Providing care relative to the patient's age and development-specific needs
All of the above

59: Age-specific care for the neonate includes all of the following except:

Speaking to the patient in a soft, comforting voice
Handling the neonate in a gentle, comforting, and soothing manner
Over-stimulation
Understanding that a neonate has immature heat regulation and needs to be kept warm

60: Age-specific care for the infant includes all of the following except:

Keep the parents out of the infant's line of sight so the infant won't be distracted
Give the infant a familiar object for comfort
Remove equipment used and keep rail up after procedure
Position the infant in supine position for sleep

61: Age-specific care for the toddler includes all of the following except:

Explain what you'll do before starting the procedure
Allow the toddler to focus on the pain or procedure
Give one direction at a time
Allow choices when possible

62: Age-specific care for children includes all of the following except:

Involve the child whenever possible
Allow the child to have as much control over the environment as possible
Explain the procedure and equipment using correct terminology
Disallow expressions of religious/cultural beliefs as expressed by the parents

63: Age-specific care for adolescents includes all of the following except:

Always provide privacy - especially true for adolescents
Never encourage questions regarding the patient's fears
Expect resistance from the patient
Include reasons in your explanation of procedures

64: Age-specific care for adult patients includes all of the following except:

Expect resistance from the patient
Encourage questions regarding the patient's fears
Bring significant others into the patient's education
Involve the patient in decision-making and planning

65: Age-specific care for geriatric patients includes all of the following except:

Interactions may be a cause of sudden confusion and agitation when the patient is taking multiple medications
Assess the patients' ability to think and remember in patient teaching and behavioral expectations
There is no need to preserve the patient's dignity & autonomy
Speak distinctly and slow the pace of explanations and presentations appropriate to the cognitive ability of the patient and/or elderly caregiver

Questions 66 through 75 - Basic Cardiac Life Support

66: During 2 rescuer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the compression-ventilation ratio for an infant is:

15:2
2:1
5:1
3:1

67: During 1 rescuer CPR, the compression-ventilation ratio for an adult is:

15:2
30:2
5:1
3:1

68: How does a patient with agonal breathing change the administration of CPR?

The ventilation rate in increased
The ventilation rate in decreased
The ventilation rate doesn't change
This patient is breathing on his own - therefore no ventilation is required

69: Basic airway management includes:

Head tilt
Lifting the Chin
Hyperextension of the mandible
Jaw thrust
A and D
A, B, and D

70: You’re helping a 6-year-old boy who’s been struck by a car in your neighborhood. The child is unresponsive. How should you open the child’s airway?

Head-tilt and chin-lift with the cervical spine immobilized
Tongue-jaw lift and blind finger sweep
Head-tilt and chin-lift without cervical spine immobilization
Jaw-thrust with cervical spine immobilized

71: The child is not breathing and has no heart rate. What should you do?

Administer CPR for 5 cycles, leave to activate EMS, then return and continue CPR
Activate EMS, then return and administer CPR
Administer CPR
Administer CPR for five minutes, leave to activate EMS, then return and continue CPR

72: After a few minutes the child has signs of circulation. How often should you provide rescue breaths for this child?

Once every 3 seconds (20 breaths per minute)
Once every 4 seconds (15 breaths per minute)
Once every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute)
Once every 10 seconds (6 breaths per minute)

73: You're working in a sub-acute pediatric facility when you're summoned to the bedside of an unresponsive patient. You determine that the 7-year-old patient does NOT have a heart rate and is also NOT breathing. A standard Automatic External Defibrillator (AED) is available and EMS has been called. The patient has a clear airway. What action should you take?

Administer CPR
Provide rescue breathing only and wait for EMS
Attempt to defibrillate using the AED
Wait for EMS to arrive citing the facility's policy to call 911

74: What's the best way to open a victim's airway?

Five abdominal thrusts and then sweep the mouth
Use the head-tilt and chin-lift
Use a mask while ventilating the man
Grab and lift the chin

75: You're part of a 2-rescuer team for an adult male. Your colleague is performing bag-mask ventilation and you're performing chest compressions. Which of the following most accurately represents the speed of compressions that you should deliver for this man?

Deliver at a rate no faster than 60 times per minute
Deliver at a rate of 80-100 times per minute
Deliver at a rate of about 100 times per minute
Deliver at a rate of at least 120 times per minute